APTA Kansas Restorative Aide Training Quiz Step 1 of 2 50% First Name*Last Name*Email* License Type / Credentials*Ex. RN, CNA, CMA, etc.License Number*Proof of Purchase*Accepted file types: jpg, pdf, png, Max. file size: 300 MB.Upload Your Proof of Purchase before completing the quiz. Upon passing, KPTA will send you your certificate. In a rehabilitation unit, which team member is responsible for addressing issues with swallowing?* Physician Nurse Physical Therapist Speech-Language Pathologist Which of the following situations best represents the patient population served by an outpatient physical therapy setting?* Patients being seen during the acute phase of their illness, injury, or surgery Patients from the community who come into a clinic to receive rehabilitation services Patients seen in a hospital or community nursing home Patients seen in their home for rehabilitation services after discharging from the hospital Which of the following are considered members of the rehabilitation team?* PT’s OT’s SLP’s All of the above A. and B. only Which of the following best describes a physical therapist’s role in the rehabilitation unit?* Main focus on assisting a patient to progress their level and independence with mobility and/or ambulation. Main focus is to increase patient’s ability to speak clearly. Main focus is to assist the patient to increase their independence with dressing and cooking. All of the above Which type of rehabilitation does not require consistent progress to be made and utilizes a flow-sheet style of documentation?* Skilled therapy Restorative Nursing Functional Maintenance All of the above None of the above What percentage of falls in the geriatric population are due to muscle weakness?* 10-25% 25-35% 35-50% Over 50% Changes in which system(s) cause wounds to heal more slowly?* Circulatory Muscular Nervous All of the above Which of the following best describes therapy’s role in addressing age related changes to the skin?* Assessing a patient’s risk for pressure ulcers Watch for dizziness and loss of consciousness Cleaning skin as soon as it is soiled Both a. and c. If a patient is at risk for developing a skin ulcer, they should be repositioned at least ______.* Every hour Every 2 hours Every 3 hours Every 4 hours True or False: Exercise is also effective in reversing or at least slowing certain neurological age related declines in motor and cognitive input of the central nervous system.* True False Inactivity can lead to all of the following, EXCEPT ________ .* Increased risk of fractures Increased joint laxity Decreased efficiency of the heart Decreased bone strength True or False: Regular exercise will typically hinder the ability of a patient to recover from a debilitating illness* True False All of the following are benefits of Exercise, EXCEPT _________ .* Performance of daily activities without undue fatigue Reduced risk for ill health Reduced energy reserves Increased sense of well-being Unjustified overconfidence in a speedy recovery would be which type of response to disability?* Denial Depression Acceptance Tolerance Becoming more familiar with the limitations/disability would be which type of response to disability?* Denial Depression Acceptance Tolerance CUS is an acronym that can be used by anyone in the facility to address a health care provider in a 3-step process. Which of the following accurately reflects what CUS stands for?* Concerned, uneasy, safety Confused, uneasy, safety Concerned, uncomfortable, safety Concerned, unsettled, safety What is the term for an informal information exchange session designed to improve team performance and effectiveness through lessons learned and reinforcement of positive behaviors?* Brief Huddle Debrief Hurdle SBAR is a technique for communicating critical information that requires immediate attention and action concerning a patient’s condition. What does the “B” in SBAR refer to?* Brief Background Basic Become All of the following bones contribute to the shoulder joint except?* Humerus Scapula Ulna Clavicle How many phalanges are in each hand?* 4 5 12 14 Which bones comprise the knee joint?* Femur, tibia, talus Femur, talus, fibula Femur, tibia, fibula Tibia, talus, fibula How many segmental vertebrae comprise the mobile spine?* 22 24 31 33 Which of the following best describes shoulder horizontal abduction?* Raising the arm forward over the head Raising the away from the side of the body Moving the arm away from the body at the level of the chest Returning the arm to the body at chest level Which of the following statements is not one of the six principles of proper lifting?* Keep your low back locked when bending backward Avoid planting your feet and twisting Complete the lift in a smooth and uniform motion Stay as close to the object as possible when lifting Which transfer is most appropriate for a patient with a recent BKA (below knee amputation)?* Stand Pivot Slide Board Mechanical lift Hoyer lift Which of the following best describes the proper location of the sling when using a mechanical lift?* Top of sling at shoulder level, bottom at mid-thigh level Top of sling at neck level, bottom at mid-thigh level Top of sling at shoulder level, bottom at knee level Top of sling at shoulder level, bottom at calf level You should never grab under a patient's arms when attempting a transfer.* True False Which is not a principle of safe transfers?* Double check that the resident's bed and/or wheelchair is/are in the locked position. Transfer area should be free of clutter and other safety hazards like liquids, cords, etc. No more than 1 staff members should be present to transfer safely. Resident should be positioned properly from the start to promote functional success. How often must a patient be repositioned in bed in order to prevent development of a pressure ulcer?* Every 30 mins 2x/day Every 2 hours Every 4 hours If the patient is lying on his/her back where should cushions be placed in order to prevent development of a pressure ulcer?* Cushions should be placed under the heels to relieve the pressure on the heels Cushions should be placed under the calves to relieve pressure on the heels Cushions should be placed underneath the entire lower extremity to prevent pressure ulcer development Cushions do not need to be used when a patient is laying on their back True or False: Bed linens can be used to reposition patients.* True False How often does a wheelchair bound patient need to be completing weight shifts in order to prevent development of a pressure ulcer?* Every 15 minutes Every hour Every 30 mins No weight shifts are necessary Where are common areas that pressure ulcers commonly develop?* Abdomen, upper arms, and upper leg Anywhere the body contacts a surface Over bony prominences, such as heels, ankles, hips, and the tailbone On the spine, dorsum of the hand, and behind the knees What gait pattern is being described: Right crutch and left foot move forward together, then the left crutch and right foot.* 3 point gait 2 point gait Modified 3 point gait Modified 2 point gait Which of the following is NOT true when going up and down the stairs with a cane?* It is best for the resident to have a sturdy handrail to use whenever possible. When going down, the resident places the cane first, then the weaker leg, followed by the stronger leg. When going up, the resident places the cane first, then the weaker leg, followed by the stronger leg. The cane should be on the same side as the weaker leg. When does the swing phase of the gait cycle end?* When the toes of the reference foot leave the ground. When the heel of the reference foot strikes the ground. When the reference foot is off the ground directly underneath the body. When the reference foot makes complete contact with the ground. Which of the following properly describes Weight Bearing As Tolerated (WBAT)?* The resident can place only the toes of one leg on the ground for balance purposes. The resident can put as much weight on the leg as they can tolerate. The resident is not allowed to put any weight on the leg. The resident can place full weight onto the leg. Which of the following is true in regard to proper use of a standard walker?* Standard walkers require the patient to pick up the walker before stepping. Standard walkers generally slide so the patient is able to push the walker and walk behind it. If the patient feels confident, they are able to pick up the walker and walk with it. The walker should be adjusted to 2 inches above the patient’s wrists. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to interact with a resident?* Treat each resident with dignity and respect. Introduce yourself and state your purpose. Treat them like they are a child, so they know you are in charge. Talk to them as you would want to be talked to. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to motivate a resident?* Having the resident work in a group instead of alone. Having a set time each day for the group or individual to meet and work out. Being an active listener with the residents to find out their likes and dislikes. Having music that is loud, upbeat, and popular with the younger generations. True or False: It is often more effective to make conversation or small talk first with a resident in order to form a positive relationship.* True False True or False: You should not be afraid to hand out lots of constructive criticism. Most of the residents will have poor work ethic and will need a stern leader.* True False True or False: Many times, the residents will feel better or at least have a sense of accomplishment, after exercising, so the exercise itself becomes a great motivator.* True False When performing passive range of motion exercises, which is best?* To make sure you repeat the motion 10 times. To take the time to hold the joint at the end of the range and decrease the number of repetitions. Ensure that the individual performs all the movement independently. Ensure that the individual actively participates in some of the motion with Which is NOT a benefit from physical exercise?* Increased strength makes functional tasks easier. Improves blood flow to the extremities. Decreases appetite and digestive action. May improve heart and lung function. What movement is intended to improve the ability of the heart to function, allowing the individual to respond to activity and develop endurance is an example of what type of exercise?* Cardiovascular exercise Resistive exercise Flexibility exercise Strengthening exercise Which of the following is true when it comes to general stretching?* Move fast and bounce through the motion Position your hands on the “belly” of the muscle that you are stretching. Move the extremity through the free range of motion through the point of restriction, or tightness. Encourage the resident to relax and gradually release each stretch. Why is it important to remind the resident to breath throughout each exercise and not to hold their breath?* The body needs to learn to do both exercise and breathing at the same time Holding the breath increases intra-abdominal pressure, increasing the risk of the resident having a hernia or other related complications Holding the breath tends to increase blood pressure. All of the above Which of the following is an example of an exercise for the legs?* Chest press Elbow flexion Short arc quads Shoulder abduction What exercise exercises the muscles on the front and back of the lower leg?* Short arc quads Ankle pumps Heel slides Long arc quads What exercise exercises the muscles on the outside of the hip and thigh?* Standing hip abduction Hip extension Marching Heel raises Which is NOT a factor that can affect balance?* Vestibular system deficits Proprioception deficits Medication interactions Auditory system deficits Which of the following correctly defines righting reactions?* Extending an arm or a leg to catch or support us, allowing the base of support to be bigger. Moving the trunk, arms, and/or legs into positions that counterbalance, allowing the center of gravity to stay over the base of support. To keep moving the base of support around the center of gravity until stable or secure. The ability to maintain a position without falling. Which of the following is false about balance activities?* It is good to encourage good weight shift from side to side, or forward/backward. Use only the support the resident may need to maintain his balance. Consult the therapist about ideas to increase the difficulty of the activities if the resident is performing well. Always assume the resident will be able to maintain their balance during all activities. Which of the following is NOT a good example of a balance activity?* Stepping over objects Seated long arc quad exercise Kicking a ball Standing on a foam pad Which of the following is a good example on how to increase the difficulty of a balance activity?* Having the resident reach for an object while maintaining their balance. Having the resident close their eyes while maintaining their balance. Having the resident hold onto something sturdy during balance activities. Having the resident turn their head from side to side during balance activities. True or False: Balance is an activity that is crucial to everyday activity and should be incorporated into all exercise training programs.* True False Which of the following is an example of a strengthening exercise that has incorporated a balance component?* Standing marches on foam pad Seated hamstring curl Heel raises in sitting Shoulder flexion in supine Which of the following would not be a good balance activity for an elderly patient on her first visit to the clinic?* Horseshoe tossing Braiding Walking backwards Standing on Bosu ball with 1 leg Elderly patients have what kind of BOS (base of support)?* Small Large The same as everyone else Which directional ambulation activities may be appropriate for your patient to do during a session?* Forward Backward Sideways Circles All of the above True or False: You have a patient work on their balance if they are not standing?* True False What item is most essential for a therapist to have when assessing and elderly patients balance for the first time?* Tape Cones A gait belt A foam pad How many people in the USA are considered bariatric?* 1/5 1/4 1/3 1/2 All of the following are components required to assist a bariatric patient to meet successful, functional goals, EXCEPT* Proper equipment Following an injury reduction program Redesign of physical environment Appropriate staffing and support for an interdisciplinary care model All of the above What would you do if you only have 1 type of gait belt at your facility and needed to walk a bariatric patient down a hallway?* Ask for another therapist to help you Have the patient only use his AD Clasp 2 gait belts together so they can reach around the patient Postpone the walk Wheelchairs should have approximately how many finger widths from the front edge of the seat to the back of the patient’s lower leg?* 1 3 4 5 Proper height for armrests should be assessed with the arms at what degrees?* 80 90 100 120 Wheelchairs should have approximately how many inches of clearance on either side of the patient’s thighs?* 1 2 3 4 How should you go up and down a curb with a wheelchair?* forwards, forwards backwards, backwards forwards, backwards backwards, forwards True or False: A wheelchair should go down a ramp facing forward.* True False What is the BEST modality a physical therapist could use for an elderly patient with hand arthritis?* hot moist pack ultrasound paraffin wax contrast bath What temperature do you keep the hot moist packs in?* 163-177 degrees F 165-175 degrees F 170-179 degrees F 158-169 degrees F How many times do you dip the patient's hand in paraffin wax to get an adequate barrier?* 4-6 times 6-8 times 8-10 times 10-12 times When do you check a person's skin for use of a moist hot pack?* Before After All of the Above The hot pack cover counts as approximately how many layers?* 2 3 4 5 True or False: Ace bandages should be wrapped distally to proximally.* True False Guidelines for effective ace wrapping include all of the following, EXCEPT:* Apply with tight pressure Be sure the area is completely dry before wrapping Check the temperature and color of the exposed parts while wrapping Apply as directed by a physician of physical therapist Safety tips for Ace Bandage wrapping include all of the following, EXCEPT:* Remove the bandage if the patient reports numbness or tingling Replace the Ace Bandage if any would drainage has leaked through If you notice new redness of the skin when removing the bandage, reapply the bandage more loosely Remove the bandage if the limb turns cold or pale Which patient population would benefit from a sling?* A patient post CVA/Stroke A patient with a rotator cuff injury A patient with an arm fracture All of the above patients would benefit None of the above patients would benefit Splints, braces, and positioning devices are generally used to place a body part in a desired position. This may be done for the all of following reasons, EXCEPT:* To discourage the development or progression of joint tightness or contractures Avoid or decrease pressure on a part of the body that is at high risk for skin breakdown Provide support to a weakened body part. Assist in the dislocation of a joint When checking skin post removal of a splint, any redness should disappear within____ mins or removal, or it should be reported to a nurse or physical therapist* 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-30 The main function of an AFO is to _________ .* To help the patient toes clear the floor during swing phase of the gait To help the patient keep the knee in full extension during heel strike To help the patient keep their balance in the gait cycle Both A and B What is a posterior leaf spring AFO made of?* Made of 2 metal uprights that fasten to the inside and outside of the hell of the shoe Made of a very rigid plastic that has a spiral shape that fits in the shoe Made of plastic and it slips inside the shoe keeping it in place with Velcro straps None of the above Which of the following is not a good option for a resident with a swollen leg because this AFO cannot be easily adjusted?* Posterior leaf spring AFO Double Upright AFO Spring AFO Wire spring AFO Which of the following AFO’(s) are made out of metal?* Posterior leaf spring AFO Double Upright AFO Spring AFO Wire spring AFO Both B and D Which of the following is important to keep in mind when working with a patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s?* Exercise daily Establish a routine Avoid noises and cluttered halls or rooms All of the above True or False: The majority of patients who have Alzheimer’s disease are age 65 or older.* True False True or False: Alzheimer’s disease occurs more commonly in men.* True False True or False: Alzheimer’s disease is reversible with proper interventions.* True False All of the following are symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease, EXCEPT:* Agitation Forgetfulness Euphoria Restlessness 70% of amputations are directly attributable to:* Trauma Cancer Infections Vascular disease A common position to prevent hip and knee contractures is:* Having the patient lay on their stomach and allow gravity to straighten their knees and hips Having the patient lay on their back and allow gravity to straighten their knees and hips Having the patient sit in a recliner Having the patient lay on their side More than 60% of nontraumatic lower-limb amputations occur in people with:* Diabetes Multiple Sclerosis Alzheimer’s Disease Fibromyalgia How often should the residual limb socks be changed and washed with soap and warm water?* Once a week Every day Every other day Twice a week If an amputee is not wearing his limb, a possible cause should be sought. What are possible causes?* Weight of the prosthesis Poor comfort Poor alignment and appearance All of the above Type I diabetes is the hereditary disease caused by an inadequate production and secretion of:* Insulin Cortisol Serotonin Norepinephrine Two main hazards of diabetes are premature arteriosclerosis and reduced blood flow. Where can these arterial changes commonly occur?* Arms, stomach, eyes Heart, brain, legs Hands, feet, knees Pancreas, liver, lungs Symptoms of Diabetes with small vessel involvement include:* Weight loss Radiculopathy Hyperesthesia Increased insulin levels What are key strategies to prevent further complications from diabetes?* Exercise Maintaining good posture Use of Beta blockers Both a. and b. A patient with diabetes requires special care and attention to their ______.* Feet Shoulders Elbows All of the above Arthritis is defined as _________ .* Swelling of the joint Contracture of the joint Inflammation of the joint Skin breakdown of the joint The most common form of arthritis is _______ .* Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis Ankylosing spondylitis None of the above True or False: Weight loss can be very important in osteoarthritis to decrease the added stress and strain on the weight bearing joints.* True False The most painful and potentially crippling form of arthritis is:* Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis Reactive arthritis Pseudo gout True or False: Total joint replacements by orthopedic surgeons have become a common treatment of individuals with either OA or RA:* True False Osteoporosis is a disorder that weakens the bones. Bone strength is usually strongest at age ____ after which bone strength decreases.* 35 25 18 40 What type of bone breaks down and reforms much faster than other bones?* Cortical Long bones Trabecular None of the above The best type of exercises to prevent osteoporosis are activities in:* Prone Weight bearing Supine Non-weight bearing Which vitamins/minerals are important for prevention (and prevention of progression) of osteoporosis?* Calcium Vitamin C Vitamin D Both a. and c. True or False: Bone is considered a living organ* True False Compression fractures occur most frequently due to __________.* Overuse Inflammation Rheumatoid Arthritis Traumatic injuries Compression fractures can occur spontaneously as a result of:* Ankylosing Spondylitis Spondylolisthesis Osteoporosis Spondylosis True or False: Individuals with compression fractures should focus on performing exercises that involve trunk flexion.* True False What are two basic orthopedic surgeries performed for vertebral compression fractures?* Laminectomy and Discectomy Foraminotomy and Nucleoplasty Vertebroplasty and Kyphoplasty Artificial disk replacement and Spinal fusion Exercises to be avoided with a compression fracture include:* Knee extensions Sit-ups Heel raises None of the above All of the above Hip fractures most commonly occur at ___________ .* The neck of the femur The anterior acetabulum The iliac crest The distal shaft Fractures that occur close to the head of the femur most often cause damage to:* Blood supply Nerves Lymphatic system Tendons All of the following are surgical approaches EXCEPT:* Anterior Medial Lateral Posterior Total hip precautions for a posterior approach include all of the following EXCEPT:* DO NOT point toes outwards DO NOT cross legs DO NOT reach for feet in bed All of the above are posterior hip precautions With which surgical approach are the gluteus muscle cut?* Anterior Medial Lateral Posterior True or False: It is unusual for the knee joint to remain warm and swollen for many weeks after TKR.* True False What is the most appropriate action if you notice that your post TKR patient has increased swelling, redness, warmth to the touch, and calf pain.* Take your patient for a walk in the hallway. Have your patient do 3 sets x 10 reps of sit to stands at the edge of the bed. Perform PROM on the patient’s lower extremities. Inform the doctor of these characteristics. What are the 4 main goals that the Physical Therapist will address with a TKR patient?* Strengthening, Passive range of motion, Active range of motion, and gait training Stretching, Passive range of motion, Active range of motion, and dynamic balance. Strengthening, Passive range of motion, Active range of motion, and stair training Stretching, Passive range of motion, Active range of motion, and gait training The final range of motion goals for a total knee replacement are what?* 10 degrees of knee extension, 90 degrees of knee flexion 2 degrees of knee extension, 111 degrees of knee flexion 5 degrees of knee extension, 100 degrees of knee flexion 0 degrees of knee extension, 115 degrees of knee flexion True or False: Current research states that there is no significant difference in ROM scores between those that used a CPM machine and those that just had physical therapy up to one year after surgery.* False True In MS, the immune system initiates an abnormal response that attacks what type of tissue that surrounds nerve cells?* Pia mater Arachnoid tissue Dura mater Myelin sheath True or False: The disabilities imposed by MS are independent upon the areas of nerves scarred and the severity of the scarring.* True False Which of the statements below is NOT true?* The ratio of women to men who have MS is 2:1. There is a single test to determine if an individual has MS. The diagnosis of MS includes having evidence of at least two separate areas of damage in the CNS, which have occurred at different times. In the United States, the MS Foundation estimates that there are more than 400,000 people diagnosed with MS. What goals does a Physical Therapist set for an individual with MS?* Maintaining physical strength Balance Adaptive equipment or aid education All of the Above How often does fatigue present as a common symptom of MS?* 100% 91% 80% 67% Which of these statements IS true?* The signs of OBS may not all be seen at the same time or to the same degree. The two most common OBS found in older people is senility and dementia. Psychological or behavioral changes never accompany OBS in the older person. A person with OBS should perform something new every day and not be around familiar faces. How might you help orient an individual who has OBS?* Having the individual stay in an ordered environment Daily routine Calendars All of the Above Which of these answers correctly describes the distinctive features of OBS?* Impairment of judgement, inability to weigh options and formulate decisions and actions, but has the ability to remember events. Impairment of orientation has complete comprehension, calculation and the ability to learn, and shows excessive emotional responses. Impairment of memory, impairment of orientation, but has the ability to weigh options and formulate decisions and actions. Impairment of memory, inability to weigh options and formulate decisions and actions, and impairment of intellect Delirium is equivalent to which age group(s)?* Very young individuals Middle aged individuals Older individuals (60+) Both A and C What is the definition for the term Organic Brain Syndrome?* A general term that describes decreased mental function due to a medical disease other than a psychiatric illness and without reference to the actual cause. A serious mental disorder in which people interpret reality abnormally. A mental health condition that causes extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression). A pattern of unreasonable thoughts and fears (obsessions) that lead you to do repetitive behaviors (compulsions). Which symptom is associated with MODERATE Parkinson’s Disease?* Movement symptoms are inconvenient but do not affect daily activities. “Freezing episodes” Depression Hallucinations How often and how intense do we want progressive resistance exercise if we are trying to increase walking capacity significantly?* 2-3 days/week, 60-80% of 4 rep max, with low reps 2-3 days/week, 40-60% of 4 rep max, with low reps 3-4 days/week, 60-80% of 5 rep max, with low reps 3-4 days/week, 40-60% of 5 rep max, with high reps What are the most appropriate interventions for a PD patient that would lead to functional and psychological improvements?* Sit to Stands Boxing Walking a mile in their neighborhood park Playing blackjack with friends What is the percentage of the population that is diagnosed with PD before the age of 50?* 3% 7% 4% 9% True or False: Women are one and a half times more likely to be diagnosed with PD than men.* True False Which of these descriptions is consistent with a restrictive breathing disorder?* These problems may present themselves as mechanical dysfunctions, fractured ribs, ankylosing spondylitis, or loss of muscles or nerves that activate the muscles of respiration. These are often categorized as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases (COPD), which includes asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, and cystic fibrosis. A condition in which your airways narrow and swell and produce extra mucus. This can make breathing difficult and trigger coughing, wheezing and shortness of breath. Difficulty in getting air out of the lungs, because there is an increased resistance to airflow. What is NOT one of the 3 parts of a CPAP machine?* Mask Motor Tube Nasal Cannula When would an individual potentially have difficulty breathing?* Humidity is high Exercising with the physical therapist Allergy season All of the Above What would be the best position to put an individual in who’s in respiratory distress?* Prone Supine Seated Sidelying True or False: You should never use extension cords with any medical equipment.* False True How long does it take for a pressure ulcer to develop if a “healthy” individual doesn’t change position?* 24 Hours 36 Hours 48 Hours 16 Hours Pressure ulcers are NOT due to what?* Prolonged sitting Improper bed positioning Brace/Splint is fitting improperly Falling off backwards onto the ground What is NOT a contributing factor of pressure ulcers?* Swelling Thin Skin Brace/Splint that fits well Pressure on bony prominence True or False: The cost of preventing a pressure ulcer is much less than the cost for healing one.* True False Which of these bony prominences has the highest chance of developing a pressure sore?* Toes Ischial tuberosity Shoulder Wrist What does FAST stand for?* F - face, A - arms, S - speech, T - tongue F - face, A - axilla, S - speech, T - time F - face , A - arms, S - speech, T - time F - feet, A - arms, S - speech, T - time Which of these symptoms is NOT a common symptom of the onset of stroke?* Sudden numbness or weakness of face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body. Gradual confusion, trouble speaking or understanding. Abrupt trouble seeing in one or both eyes. Immediate trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance, or coordination. Which of these symptoms matches a RIGHT sided stroke?* Decreased ability to judge distance, size, speed, or position. Cautious Decreased short-term memory. Both A and C If both temporal visual fields are lost what is this called?* Bitemporal Hemianopsia Left Homonymous Hemianopsia Binasal Hemianopsia Monocular Hemianopia Based on the above question, what structure would have a tumor causing the above visual field deficit?* Optic Nerve Optic Radiations Pituitary gland Occipital Lobe Lymphedema is a condition characterized by* Blood flow to an area in the brain being disrupted. A neurodegenerative brain disorder that progresses slowly in most people affecting their ability to regulate their movements, body, and emotions. Protein rich swelling/edema in the body caused by an impairment in the lymphatic circulation. Decreased mental function due to a medical disease other than a psychiatric illness and without reference to the actual cause. Lymphedema is usually the result of* Cancer management that includes removal of lymph nodes and radiation Venous insufficiency Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Both A and B True or False: Lymphedema is dangerous because prolonged swelling creases body changes that favor a skin infection or cellulitis.* True False What therapeutic devices may lymphedema patients require assistance with?* Applying their compression bandages Applying their garments Applying their intermittent compression pumps All of the above Why would a lymphedema patient require assistance with their compression bandaging?* Loss of flexibility in their spine Loss of strength in their hands Loss of flexibility in their hips All of the above
